This question prompts us to identify a plausible reason why the participants described are less likely to seek support from others. We will need to rely on the passage to determine what attachment style best describes the participants and the passage, as well as our content knowledge regarding that attachment style.
Individuals with an avoidant attachment style maintain distance from others as they are reluctant to get close to others. Thinking that others are reluctant to get close to oneself is more characteristic of an individual with an anxious-ambivalent attachment style, which is characterized by low self-esteem, high levels of anxiety, and the tendency to rely overly on others.
The second paragraph of the passage states that only “ambulance workers whose scores reflected avoidant attachment were retained as participants in the study.” The avoidant attachment style is characterized by extreme independence and reluctance to depend on others. Ainsworth, the psychologist to first study attachment styles, believed this is caused by the inability of caregivers to initially support their children, which consequently results in the child’s lack of trust in others.
As participants with an avoidant attachment style would likely be very independent, it is plausible that they are less likely to seek support from others as they find it difficult to trust and depend on others.
A lack of concern regarding whether or not others will abandon oneself would not explain the reluctance of participants to rely on others. A lack of concern regarding abandonment would also be more characteristic of a secure attachment style, characterized by high self-esteem and security in one’s relationships.
The participants investigated in the passage have an avoidant attachment style, indicating that they have difficulty trusting others. Individuals with an avoidant attachment style would want to avoid merging completely with others as they are very independent.
This question prompts us to identify the type of parent-infant interaction that most likely occurred for the participants. This requires us to rely on the passage to determine the attachment style of the participants investigated, as well as our content knowledge regarding the development of attachment styles.
Children with an avoidant attachment style did not exhibit separation anxiety or dazed behavior in response to the absence of their caregivers. This response is more characteristic of the disorganized attachment style, which involves feelings of disorientation, wandering, and inconsistent movement upon separation from the caregiver.
Children with an avoidant attachment style did not exhibit separation anxiety in response to the absence of their caregivers. Slight separation anxiety and the desire to be reconnected with one’s caregiver is more characteristic of a secure attachment style.
Children with an avoidant attachment style did not exhibit separation anxiety in response to the absence of their caregivers. High levels of separation anxiety and resistance to the caregiver upon return is more characteristic of an anxious-ambivalent attachment style.
The second paragraph of the passage states that those with an “avoidant attachment were retained as participants in the study.” The strange situation experiment conducted by Mary Ainsworth involved the observation of children as their caregivers and strangers entered and left the room in an effort to better understand attachment styles. Ainsworth noted that children with an avoidant attachment style avoided contact with their caregiver, showed no signs of distress once their caregiver left, and treated strangers similarly to how they treated their caregivers.
Therefore, we can conclude that the parent-infant interaction that likely occurred for the participants involves an insecure infant-parent bond that is characterized by little separation anxiety and a tendency for the infant to resist contact with the parent.
This question prompts us to identify a conclusion based on the graph provided. Therefore, we will not need to rely on the passage to answer this question.
The largest percentage difference of social withdrawal between the two levels of avoidant attachment can be approximated by looking at the distance between the two data points associated with each data collection (immediately, after one night, etc.). As the distance between the two points is greatest after one night, we cannot conclude that the largest percentage difference in social withdrawal occurred one week following exposure to a critical incident.
We must look at the triangle-shaped data points when analyzing individuals with low avoidant attachment. The triangle-shaped data point immediately following exposure is between 40% and 50%, indicating that slightly less than half of the ambulance workers with this attachment style withdrew from social contact immediately following exposure to the incident.
The line with square-shaped points is higher on the y-axis than the line with triangle-shaped points, indicating that ambulance workers with high avoidant attachment styles were consistently more socially withdrawn over one month.
Therefore, ambulance workers with high avoidant attachment were more likely to report a greater occurrence of social withdrawal following exposure to a critical incident.
Around 30% of individuals with high avoidant attachment were socially withdrawn one month after exposure to the incident, compared to approximately 10% of individuals with low avoidant attachment, indicating that social withdrawal was different for the two groups after one month.
This question prompts us to identify a term that is exemplified by the internal working model described in the study. Though this idea is discussed in the passage, we will not need to refer back to the passage as it is redefined for us in the question.
An insight describes previously learned information suddenly combining in a unique way to quickly provide a solution to a problem. Insight learning is a form of problem-solving, not a model that sets expectations about the self and others.
A critical period describes a time frame in which some process, cognitive or physiological, is much easier to acquire. The internal model allows an individual to organize information about their environment and does not represent a period of time.
A cognitive schema is a type of mental framework that allows us to quickly interpret and organize large amounts of information. This organized information allows individuals to have a point of comparison when interpreting new information.
Therefore, as the internal working model allows individuals to set expectations, we can best describe the internal working model as an example of a cognitive schema.
A heuristic describes a “rule of thumb” or mental shortcut that can be used to quickly solve a problem. Though the internal working model described in the passage allows one to interpret information quickly, option C is stronger as it more clearly represents the model’s ability to set expectations.
This question prompts us to identify a factor that is likely to be assessed in order to measure a behavioral component of ambulance workers’ emotional regulation. As this question prompts us to make a conclusion about a hypothetical follow-up study, we will not need to rely on the passage for this question.
Though journal entries can provide insight into the ambulance workers’ emotional states, they are not observable actions and therefore do not measure a behavioral component of emotion.
Heart rate could provide insight into the ambulance workers’ emotional states. However, as heart rate is an uncontrollable physiological response, it would not be a behavioral component of emotion.
As ratings of likeability are not a form of observable actions, these would not be classified as a behavioral component of emotion.
The behavioral component of emotion involves the observable, controllable actions that provide insight into the individual’s internal emotional state. This can be seen through visual changes in expression (i.e., laughing or sighing) and other observable actions, and are influenced by the norms of a given society.
As social interactions are observable actions, this factor would likely be assessed when wanting to measure a behavioral component of emotion.
This question prompts us to identify a brain region that is least likely to be activated during the study. This requires us to rely on the passage for information on what the participants were tasked with, as well as our content knowledge regarding different areas of the brain.
The third paragraph of the passage states that “ambulance workers were… asked to identify a critical incident they encountered in the past.” As the workers are describing a past critical incident, we would expect regions of the brain associated with emotion and memory to be activated during this study.
As the parietal lobe is responsible for integrating sensory information, we would not expect it to be significantly activated when participants recount a critical incident as it does not play a significant role in memory or emotion.
The hippocampus is a brain structure of the temporal lobe that plays a role in learning and memory. As the ambulance workers were asked to identify a past event, the hippocampus would likely be activated during this task.
The prefrontal cortex is a brain structure responsible for complex cognitive functions such as the moderation of social behavior. As participants were working with researchers to provide information regarding their experiences, the prefrontal cortex was likely activated more so than the parietal lobe, making option A stronger.
The amygdala is a brain structure responsible for emotional encoding and processing fearful stimuli. As the participants were tasked with recounting critical incidents in their past, the amygdala was likely activated in response to revisiting these emotional events.
This question prompts us to identify a statement that incorrectly applies psychodynamic theory to the psychological responses to upward comparison. We will need to rely on the passage’s description of the psychological responses and our content knowledge surrounding the psychodynamic theory to answer this question.
As the superego desires perfection, it is likely that the superego would not want the individual in question to appear less favorable than the other individual present.
The ego and superego function as opposites, with the ego desiring immediate gratification and the superego desiring long-term perfection. As these two are in opposition, this could lead to the anxiety experienced by the individuals described.
In paragraph 3, the passage states that “upward comparison (comparing oneself with a more successful other) can lead to negative self-evaluation, which causes psychological distress.” The psychodynamic theory is similar to the psychoanalytic theory in that it attributes human behavior and attitudes to interactions between the id, superego, and ego. The id is the instinctual part of the mind that desires immediate gratification, the superego is the moral conscience that values morals and perfection, and the ego is the part of the mind that attempts to navigate between the former two.
As the superego strives for perfection, it is likely that upward comparison would notify the superego that there is room for personal improvement and consequently create conflict. However, the ego, not the id, resolves subconscious conflict. We can therefore conclude that this statement incorrectly applies the psychodynamic theory to the psychological responses described in the passage.
As the ego is responsible for managing subconscious conflict, this statement correctly applies the psychodynamic theory to the psychological response described in the passage.
This question prompts us to identify a defense mechanism that the patient in the passage is most likely using. We will need to rely on the passage’s description of the patient to answer this question.
Projection is a defense mechanism in which one interprets external actions through the lens of what is internally relevant. For example, if one accuses their partner of cheating when, in reality, it is them who has been unfaithful. The patient in the passage does not project in any of his statements.
Rationalization is a defense mechanism in which one uses logic to justify behavior, even in instances where the behavior was illogical. The patient in the passage does not rationalize behavior in any of his statements.
The first paragraph of the passage states that “despite [the patient’s] feelings of inferiority and envy, the patient also reports having extreme admiration and love for his partner.” Reaction formation is a defense mechanism associated with the psychoanalytic theory in which one navigates anxiety-causing emotions by emphasizing the opposite. In the situation described in the passage, the individual emphasizes his love and adoration for his partner despite having anxiety-causing emotions associated with them.
Therefore, as the patient emphasizes adoration for his partner when experiencing anxiety-causing emotions associated with him, the patient is likely using the reaction formation defense mechanism.
Emotional displacement is a defense mechanism in which one attributes negative feelings from one entity to another. This would be seen if the patient had attributed their negative feelings to anything other than their partner. As the patient consistently describes feelings of inadequacy due to their partner’s success as their stressor, the patient does not use emotional displacement.
This question prompts us to identify the independent variable in the study described in the passage. We will need to rely on the passage’s description of the study to answer this question.
The independent variable of a study is typically controlled. Therefore, the measured variables of participants’ ideal and actual selves cannot be independent variables.
In order to find relationships between variables, researchers can define and manipulate variables in order to see their consequent effect on other variables. The variables that are manipulated by researchers are called independent variables, and the variables that are measured in response to this manipulation are called dependent variables, as their values are dependent on the independent variables.
The passage states that “scores were made up by the researchers to be either similar to or different from each participant’s actual self or ideal scores” and that “participants reported greater interest in dates who were similar to their ideal selves.” As similarity to participants’ actual or ideal scores was manipulated by researchers to measure date interest, we can infer that researchers treated similarity to participant scores as an independent variable in order to measure date interest.
Therefore, we can conclude that the independent variable of the study was manipulated by the researchers.
Though researchers had no control over whether or not participants preferred certain dates, date preference was the measured variable and, therefore, the dependent variable.
The independent variable is manipulated to measure changes in the dependent variable. The participants’ actual and ideal selves were measured in order to create the independent variable but were not the independent variables themselves.
This question prompts us to identify a statement that best explains the patient’s behavior in terms of operant conditioning. We will have to rely on the passage’s description of the patient and apply their actions to what we know about operant conditioning.
A positive reinforcer is something that is added in order to promote behavior. Feelings of inferiority discouraged the patient from attending social events, making it a positive punisher.
A negative reinforcer is something that is removed in order to promote behavior. A negative reinforcer is typically seen through the removal of a negative stimulus. In this situation, feelings of inferiority are added and decrease behavior.
Operant conditioning describes a type of learning in which rewards and punishments are implemented to promote or discourage certain behaviors, respectively. A positive reward or punishment is something that is added, whereas a negative reward or punishment describes something that is removed. The passage states that “[the patient] … stopped attending social events with his partner because such events elevate his feelings of inferiority.” As the presence of feelings of inferiority results in the patient no longer engaging in a behavior (attending social events), we can deduce that feelings of inferiority are acting as a positive punisher.
Therefore, we can conclude that feelings of inferiority functioned as a positive punisher for attending social events with his partner.
Though feelings of inferiority act as a punisher as they decrease the patient’s attendance at social events, they are added to the patient’s experience, making them a positive punisher, not a negative punisher.
This question prompts us to identify a conclusion that can be made about formal organizations according to Weber’s characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy. We will need to rely on our content knowledge regarding an ideal bureaucracy to answer this question.
One of the six principles of Weber’s ideal bureaucracy is a division of labor. This principle states that positions are specialized with clear job descriptions. Training employees to complete a variety of tasks would contradict this principle.
Weber’s ideal bureaucracy involves six key principles: formal selection, formal rules, impersonality, career orientation, division of labor, and hierarchy. Formal selection indicates that individuals are selected for positions based on merit and technical ability.
Therefore, we can conclude that a formal organization that follows Weber’s ideal bureaucracy would select employees based on technical qualifications.
One of the six principles of Weber’s ideal bureaucracy is hierarchy, with individuals at the top of the hierarchy making decisions for the entire organization. Therefore, individuals would not need to come to a consensus as most employees would not be part of the decision-making process.
One of the six principles of Weber’s ideal bureaucracy involves formal rules or a set of standard operating procedures. As Weber’s ideal bureaucracy values standardization, we would not expect a formal organization to evaluate individuals on a case-by-case basis.
This question prompts us to identify a potential outcome for the 34-year-old man through the lens of Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development. We will need to rely on our content knowledge regarding the theory.
Despair is a potential outcome of the eighth stage of psychosocial development, integrity vs. despair. This stage occurs in individuals 65 years and older and focuses on overall life satisfaction. As the individual in question is 34 years old, we would not expect them to be in the final stage of development.
Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development states that development occurs over the span of eight stages: trust vs. mistrust, autonomy vs. shame and doubt, initiative vs. guilt, industry vs. inferiority, identity vs. role confusion, intimacy vs. isolation, generativity vs. stagnation, and integrity vs. despair. Each stage is characterized by age ranges and conflicts that must be overcome before moving to the next stage.
The sixth stage, intimacy vs. isolation, occurs in individuals between the ages of 19 and 40 and focuses on forming intimate relationships. The successful resolution of this conflict results in love or intimacy, and an unsuccessful resolution would result in isolation.
As the individual described in the question is a 34-year-old man struggling to form intimate relationships, we know he is in the sixth stage of psychosocial development. As the question does not indicate that he has overcome the conflict associated with this stage, the most likely outcome would be isolation.
Role confusion is a potential outcome of Erikson’s sixth stage of psychosocial development, identity vs. role confusion. This stage occurs in individuals aged 12 to 18.
Stagnation is a potential outcome of Erikson’s seventh stage of psychosocial development, generativity vs. stagnation. This stage is relevant to those aged 40 to 65, and would not be relevant to the man described in the question.
This question prompts us to identify a statement that best describes race and ethnicity. We will need to rely on our content knowledge surrounding those terms to answer this question.
Both race and ethnicity are concepts that describe the categorization of people. As populations change, race and ethnicity change as well.
Race and ethnicity are often factors that are passed down from generation to generation. Individuals can identify with multiple races and ethnicities as their families diversify.
Though the concept of race primarily focuses on the shared physical qualities of a group of people, ethnicity focuses more on culture, not physical appearance.
Race is a sociological categorization of people based on shared physical qualities. Ethnicity differs from race as it instead categorizes people based on shared culture and identification. Institutionalization describes the sociological process of defining ideas in organizations, social structures, or society.
As race and ethnicity are concepts integrated into society and defined by major social structures (i.e., the government), we can conclude that the conceptualization of race and ethnicity are institutionalized in major social structures.
This question prompts us to identify a construct that best describes the process of an immigrant group expressing the cultural values and norms of a new country. We will need to rely on our content knowledge regarding the terms in the answer options to answer this question.
Cultural transmission describes the process in which culture is passed from one individual or group to another. Though cultural transmission does occur in the question as those in the immigrant group are learning new values and norms, option D is a stronger choice as it emphasizes the change in cultural expression that can occur when minority groups are placed in a new setting.
Cultural relativism describes the evaluation of an individual’s beliefs and practices through the lens of that individual’s culture rather than the observer’s culture. The question does not describe the evaluation of beliefs, so we cannot describe the process as cultural relativism.
Cultural diffusion describes the exchange of culture from one group to another. As the question does not describe the individuals of the new country adopting the culture of the immigrant group, the process described in the question cannot be described as cultural diffusion.
Cultural assimilation describes the process in which a minority group begins to adopt the values and norms of the majority group. In the situation described in the question, the minority immigrant group begins to express the values and norms of the new country that are established by that country’s majority.
As a minority group begins to adopt the characteristics of the majority group, this process can best be described by cultural assimilation.
This question prompts us to identify a conclusion that would exemplify the fundamental attribution error when interpreting the results of the study. We will primarily rely on our understanding of the fundamental attribution error to answer this question.
Though this answer option also discusses dispositional attribution, the fundamental attribution error causes individuals to overemphasize dispositional causes to others. Therefore, we expect dispositional attributions to be stronger, not weaker.
The fundamental attribution error describes the tendency of individuals to attribute the actions of others to dispositional variables rather than situational variables. In order for the fundamental attribution error to be influencing data interpretation, interpreters will need to overemphasize dispositional/internal causes for people’s actions.
If dispositional attributions of others’ behavior were stronger when the presence of others influenced attitude ratings, we would see an overemphasis on dispositional causes, which would be indicative of the fundamental attribution error.
This answer option discusses situational/external causes for people’s actions. The fundamental attribution is focused on dispositional attributions.
Similarly to answer option C, this answer option discusses situational/external causes for people’s actions. The fundamental attribution is focused on dispositional attributions.\
From the question and a quick scan of the answer options, we know that this question asks us to identify a statistical consequence of participants rating administrators’ attitudes more inconsistently in one condition than in the other. We will need to apply our understanding of statistical measurements to the study in order to answer this question.
The mean is the quantitative value obtained when all data points are added together, and the sum is divided by the number of data points. Inconsistency in the “Alone” condition would cause greater variability between the data points. This could increase the mean in the “Alone” condition, but there is no way to predict that, as the increased variation could cause the mean to increase, decrease, or stay the same.
The mode describes the value that appears with the highest frequency in a set of data points. The mode is not influenced by inconsistency or variability. Therefore, its change cannot be predicted simply by knowing that participants were more inconsistent in one condition than another.
When a set of data points are sorted in ascending order, the median will be the number in the middle of the set. If a data set has an even number of data points, the median is calculated by adding the two middle-most points and dividing that value by 2 (i.e., by taking the average of the two middle-most points). Inconsistency would not change the median as the middle number could, in theory, stay the same.
If participants rated administrators’ attitudes more inconsistently in the “Alone” condition than in the “With Others” condition, we would expect the individual data points in the “Alone” condition to have greater variation and show no clear trend. The standard deviation is a quantitative measurement that describes variation between a set of values. Though we don’t need to know how to calculate standard deviation, we should understand that data sets that are more highly dispersed will have a greater standard deviation as most data points will not be close to the mean.
If the data points in the “Alone” condition have greater variation due to participant inconsistency, we would also expect the standard deviation of the “Alone” condition to be higher than the “With Others” condition.
This question prompts us to identify a likely outcome if participants exhibited social facilitation. We will need to apply our content knowledge surrounding the term to the study described in the passage.
This answer option indicates that participants are learning from others to enhance their performance. Social facilitation does not describe a method of learning, but that the mere presence of others enhances an individual’s performance on simple tasks.
This states the opposite of social facilitation. We would expect individuals with others to perform better than individuals who are alone.
Social facilitation describes the improved performance on a task due to being in the presence of others and usually occurs when individuals are completing simple tasks. The passage states that “participants were randomly assigned to complete a simple card-sorting task.” If social facilitation was exhibited in this task, we would expect the card sorting to improve in the presence of others.
Therefore, we can conclude that social facilitation would be exhibited if individuals performed better on the card-sorting task when with others than when alone.
This description best describes social loafing, the phenomenon of individuals exerting less effort when in a group than when alone. Social facilitation indicates that people perform better when in the presence of others. This does not mean that they will need to exert less effort in order to achieve the same result but that the same amount of effort will result in a better outcome.
This question prompts us to identify the type of processing induced by the administrator through the lens of the elaboration likelihood model. We will need to rely on our content knowledge surrounding the model to answer this question.
High elaboration processing involves scrutinizing arguments and using the central route of processing. As administrators did not present any clear argument, we can infer that participants likely used the peripheral route of processing.
The central route of processing relies on evaluating the quality of the argument presented. The participants relied on their associations with nonverbal cues, using the peripheral route of processing.
Although careful processing is not a term associated with the elaboration likelihood model, we can infer that careful processing involves higher levels of scrutiny and is likely associated with individuals with higher levels of elaboration. This would correlate with the central route of processing, not the peripheral route.
The elaboration likelihood model describes the paths persuasive stimuli can take in order to enact attitude changes. The central route of processing relies on evaluating the merit and validity of the argument presented. The peripheral route of processing relies on using cues and associations to evaluate the strength of the argument. The model also states that individuals can have different levels of elaboration, and that those with high levels of elaboration are more likely to scrutinize an argument and use the central route of processing, whereas those with low levels of elaboration are less likely to scrutinize arguments and more likely to use the peripheral route of processing.
The passage states that “the administrator of the card-sorting task displayed a positive (smiling, consistent eye contact, and pleasant tone of voice) or negative (scowling, poor eye contact, impatient foot tapping) attitude by using a variety of nonverbal cues toward half of the participants in each condition.” From this, we can infer that no verbal argument was presented, preventing participants from using the central route of processing as there is no merit or logic to evaluate. However, participants could rely on the peripheral route by relying on their associations with the positive and negative nonverbal cues presented by administrators.
Therefore, we can conclude that administrators likely induced peripheral route processing when interacting with participants.
This question prompts us to identify the construct that is most relevant to the comparison of two wines in paragraph 2. We will need to rely on the passage to answer this question.
The portion of paragraph 2 relevant to multiple wines states that “as more sugar is added, subtle changes in the sweetness of wine can be detected by both experts and novices.” This indicates that nuances in wines can be detected based on their levels of sweetness. Weber’s law states that the difference threshold (change in stimulus necessary for detection) is proportional to the original magnitude of the stimulus. The statement in paragraph 2 is most similar to Weber’s law as Weber’s law could be used to determine what level of sugar must be added in order for people to detect a difference between two wines.
Therefore, we can conclude that Weber’s law is the construct most relevant to the comparison made in paragraph 2.
Perceptual constancy describes the phenomenon of perceiving an object as a constant entity despite the sensation of the object changing. For example, seeing an object in different lighting but understanding that it is still the same object. As the passage states that a detectable change in sweetness indicates something has changed, it is irrelevant to perceptual constancy.
Natural selection is a mechanism of natural selection that dictates that different phenotypes allow for different rates of survival, ultimately resulting in the prevalence of phenotypes most suited for survival in a specific environment. As there is no discussion of organisms, we know this is irrelevant to natural selection.
Absolute threshold describes the minimal intensity of stimulus required to detect the presence of that stimulus. Though the final sentence of paragraph 2 is related to the absolute threshold as it states that “the lowest level of an odor that can be detected does not seem to be improved with training,” we must rely on the second sentence of paragraph 2 as that is the one that describes multiple wines.
This question prompts us to identify a potential confounding variable for the study described in the final paragraph. We will need to rely on the passage’s description of the study to answer this question.
The presence of food coloring would be the independent variable as it is manipulated to allow the researchers to examine the relationship between visual information and perceived taste.
From Figure 1, we know that the number of red wine words, or red wine descriptors, is a variable that is measured. Therefore, this would be the dependent variable, not a confounding variable.
A confounding variable is a factor that influences the dependent variable in addition to the independent variable, often resulting in an inaccurate conclusion regarding the relationship between the independent and dependent variables. The passage states that the study was conducted “to examine whether visual information was more relevant than a flavor profile in eliciting an accurate description of the wine’s flavor” and that participants were asked to taste and describe an authentic red and white wine, and later an authentic white wine and a “white wine [that] had been colored red.” As researchers were examining the relationship between visual information (i.e., the color of the wine), and the description of the wine, a confounding variable would be something that could influence the dependent variable (the description of the wine) that is not caused by the independent variable (the color of the wine).
If the food coloring could be tasted by subjects, this would influence the dependent variable and could lead to an inaccurate conclusion regarding the visual profile of the wine and the description of the wine’s flavor. Therefore, we know potential food coloring flavor would be a confounding variable.
Obesity levels of the subject would not be a factor that could influence the dependent variable and, therefore, would not be a confounding variable.
This question prompts us to identify the receptors responsible for the color vision necessary to detect the food coloring described in the passage. Though the question references the passage, we will only need to rely on our content knowledge surrounding the receptors responsible for color vision.
Rods are responsible for black-and-white vision, not color vision. This answer option also incorrectly describes the location of rods as being in the fovea rather than the periphery of the eye.
Rods are responsible for black-and-white vision, not color vision. Participants would rely on color vision to detect the food coloring described in the passage.
Photoreceptors in the retina allow the body to convert light into electrochemical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. Cones, the photoreceptors that process color vision, are less numerous and concentrated in the center of the retina called the fovea. Rods, the photoreceptors that process black-and-white vision, are more numerous and found on the periphery of the retina.
Therefore, we can conclude that cones in the fovea would be responsible for the color vision necessary to detect the food coloring described in the passage.
Though cones are responsible for color vision, this answer option incorrectly describes the location of cones as being in the periphery of the eye rather than in the fovea.
This question prompts us to identify a factor that best explains the student’s attribution. As the student is not described further in the passage, we can rely on the question and our content knowledge surrounding attribution to answer this question.
Conformity describes the change in beliefs or behavior in order to better align with those in the norm. As we are not given information regarding the norm, we cannot state that the student sommelier is conforming.
Attribution describes how individuals perceive the causes of events and is generally described as either internal (factors within the individual’s control) or external (factors beyond the individual’s control). As the individual describes their success by stating they “just got lucky,” we know they are not attributing their success to internal, controllable factors.
Therefore, we can conclude that an external locus of control would best explain the student’s attribution.
Social facilitation describes the improved performance on a task due to being in the presence of others and usually occurs when individuals are completing simple tasks. We are not told that others are present while the sommelier correctly describes the wine, so we cannot state that their success is influenced by social facilitation.
Social inhibition, the opposite of social facilitation, describes the hindered performance on a task due to the presence of others. Similarly to option C, we are not told that others are present while the sommelier correctly describes the wine, so we cannot state that they were influenced by social inhibition. Social inhibition is also associated with failure, not success.
This passage-based question asks us to identify the primary function of donepezil in Study 2, prompting us to consult Study 2 while applying our scientific reasoning and problem-solving skills.
An antagonist opposes the effects of a particular molecule. Within the synapse, acetylcholine’s function is opposed by acetylcholinesterase. Because donepezil is an AchE inhibitor, it allows acetylcholine to remain in the synaptic cleft for a longer duration, activating more acetylcholine receptors. Thus, it does not increase the antagonistic effects of acetylcholine.
During Study 2, “researchers used magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to determine whether pharmacological agents slowed brain atrophy in AD patients.” Donepezil, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, was administered daily to patients with mild to moderate AD either alone or with memantine, an NMDA antagonist.
Acetylcholinesterase (AchE) is an enzyme found in neuromuscular junctions and chemical synapses that utilize acetylcholine (Ach). Its function is to break down acetylcholine, preventing its signaling. An AchE inhibitor, like donepezil, would prevent the breakdown of Ach, increasing the duration of its signaling.
Therefore, we may conclude that the primary function of donepezil in Study 2 is to increase the duration of acetylcholine action.
As an AchE inhibitor, donepezil will not inhibit acetylcholine release. However, it will prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft, allowing it to act for a longer duration.
As an inhibitor of AchE, donepezil will prevent acetylcholine’s breakdown in the synaptic cleft. It will not inhibit the formation of acetylcholine.
This question asks us to identify which conclusion regarding the benefits of pharmacological mono- and combination therapy is not supported by Study 2, prompting us to refer to Study 2 while applying content knowledge regarding reasoning about the design and execution of research.
During Study 2, “researchers used magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to determine whether pharmacological agents slowed brain atrophy in AD patients.” Donepezil, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, was administered daily to patients with mild to moderate AD either alone or with memantine, an NMDA antagonist.
Because donepezil is compared to combination therapy (donepezil and memantine) but never to memantine alone, no conclusions can be drawn regarding the relative performance of donepezil and memantine.
Therefore, we cannot conclude that donepezil provides better results than memantine.
As shown in Figure 1C, the daily activity score was reduced with combination therapy. Thus, combination therapy with memantine does not always provide better results.
As shown in Figures 1A and 1B, monotherapy provided better results during the brain atrophy and cognitive score assessments. Thus, monotherapy with donepezil does not always provide better results.
Figure 1 demonstrates the results from three different neurobiological tests. This supports the conclusion that results regarding the benefits of mono- versus combination therapy will be different based on the type of neurobiological assessment given.
This question asks us to identify which statement is supported by the results of Study 2, prompting us to examine the results of Study 2 while applying our data-based statistical reasoning skills.
Figure 1A demonstrates that treatment with the AChEI alone results in significantly increased brain atrophy compared to those treated with combination therapy. Thus, this conclusion is not supported.
Figure 1B demonstrates that combination therapy produced cognitive scores that were significantly higher than the control group, but not significantly higher than the AChEI group. Thus, this conclusion is not supported.
This question asks us to identify which statement is supported by the results of Study 2, prompting us to examine the results of Study 2 while applying our data-based statistical reasoning skills.
In Study 2, the daily living score was determined by behavioral measures, or “the ability to do routine tasks such as grooming, eating, and walking independently.” In Figure 1C, it is clear that combination therapy results in significantly reduced daily activity scores compared to the control group.
Thus, we may conclude that combination therapy showed significant behavioral impairment compared to participants in the CONT group.
Figure 1B demonstrates that AChEl participants did not differ significantly from combination therapy participants in terms of cognitive scores. Furthermore, Figure 1C shows that combination therapy participants and AChEl participants did not differ significantly on a measure of behavioral performance.
This question asks us to identify which conclusion is supported by the results of Study 1 and/or Study 2, prompting us to refer to the passage while employing our data-based statistical reasoning skills.
Per Figure 1A, participants in combination therapy showed less brain atrophy than patients treated with AChEIs alone. However, they did not differ significantly from healthy controls, so we may not conclude that pharmacological treatment prevents significant structural loss of brain cells.
The results of Study 2 indicate that there is brain atrophy in patients with AD. Thus, patients with AD show structural loss due to atrophy.
However, Study 1 reveals that “for AD patients, there was a spatial shift in cortical activity that was independent of latency or strength of the electrical current, compared to controls.” Moreover, “the cortical shift was located at a posterior region of the somatosensory cortex and was determined not to be a result of brain atrophy known to occur in AD.” These findings support the conclusion that the brains of AD patients show neural plasticity and loss of cells may result in reorganization to preserve functional connectivity.
Therefore, we may conclude that the results of Study 1 and Study 2 suggest that patients with AD show structural loss due to atrophy, but reorganization may preserve functional activity in some brain regions.
Although the cortical shift in Study 1 indicates neural plasticity, this is not the equivalent of reversing structural loss. Thus, neither study indicates that structural loss can be reversed.
Although Figure 1C indicates that AD patients exhibit a functional loss of motor skills, Figure 1A shows that these patients may also exhibit brain atrophy.
This question prompts us to identify the type of social mobility experienced by the woman described in the question. We can best approach this question by identifying the changes the woman experienced and comparing this experience to our content knowledge regarding social mobility.
Horizontal mobility occurs when an individual experiences a change in occupation without experiencing a change in social class. As the woman in question moves into a lower socioeconomic status, this would not be an example of horizontal mobility.
Vertical mobilitydescribes the upward or downward movement from one social status to another. The woman described in the question has lost her job and accumulated debt, which consequently causes her to sell her home. Based on this description, we can infer that the woman has moved down into a different socioeconomic class.
Therefore, as the woman descends to a different social class, we can describe this situation as an example of vertical mobility.
Intergenerational mobility refers to the upward or downward movement from one social status to another between generations. As we are not given information regarding the social class of the woman’s parents, we cannot conclude that she is experiencing intergenerational mobility.
Structural mobility refers to the change in social class between large groups of people, often caused by sociological factors outside an individual’s control. Structural mobility is a macroscopic phenomenon and cannot be exemplified by one individual alone.
This question prompts us to identify the dependent variable of a proposed study. We must apply our content knowledge regarding research design to the situation described in the question.
The question states that happiness, not cultural differences, is measured in the study. As changes in cultural differences are not being measured, we cannot conclude that this is the dependent variable.
The relationship between the gross domestic product of different nations and happiness is being studied. However, as nations are not expected to change in response to any independent variable, we cannot conclude that nations are the dependent variable.
The question states that a nation’s gross domestic product is being compared to happiness levels. As the gross domestic product is treated as a factor that could cause a change in happiness levels, this would be an independent variable of the study.
A dependent variable in research is a measurable variable that is expected to change due to established independent variables. The question tells us that happiness is measured relative to a nation’s gross domestic product.
Therefore, as researchers are interested in measuring changes in happiness across cultures, we can conclude that happiness is the dependent variable of the study.
This question prompts us to identify a condition that exemplifies medicalization. We will need to rely on our content knowledge regarding the definition of “medicalization” to answer this question.
Cancer describes a disease in which cells uncontrollably divide and infiltrate surrounding tissue. Though cancer is a legitimate medical condition and was medicalized at some point in history, it has been considered a medical condition for a long period of time. Therefore, option C is a stronger example of medicalization.
Diabetes is a set of diseases characterized by high blood glucose levels. Similarly to answer option A, diabetes has been considered a medical condition for a long period of time and would not be a good example of medicalization.
Medicalization describes the phenomenon of symptoms being defined as medical conditions. Symptoms and conditions that appear out of an individual’s control have historically been easier to medicalize than others. Alcoholism is a disease in which individuals are dependent on and preoccupied with alcohol. As alcoholism has traditionally been regarded as a personal flaw rather than a medical condition, it is the answer option most recently defined as a medical condition.
Therefore, alcoholism is a good example of medicalization as it is a condition that has transitioned from being considered a personal failure to a legitimate medical condition.
Hypertension describes a condition in which an individual has higher than normal blood pressure. As hypertension has been accepted as a medical condition for a long period of time, option C is a stronger example of medicalization.
The question prompts us to identify a term that can explain why people tend to form social and romantic relationships with individuals that they see frequently. We will need to rely on our content knowledge regarding the terms in the answer options to answer this question.
The looking-glass self describes how one’s self-concept depends on how one believes one appears to others. The question does not describe self-concept and is, therefore, irrelevant to the looking-glass self.
The mere exposure effect describes the tendency of individuals to prefer people and things they spend more time with.
As the question describes individuals forming more intimate relationships with those they see more frequently, we can infer that they prefer those they spend more time with. Therefore, this tendency can best be explained by the mere exposure effect.
Social comparison describes the comparison of oneself to others. Though social comparison can be a component of social interactions with those one sees frequently, it would not explain the tendency for people to form intimate relationships with these individuals.
Social facilitation describes the enhancement in performance one experiences when completing a task in front of others. This is irrelevant to the situation described in the question, as no task is being performed.
This question asks which correlation is supported by the results of the study. This prompts us to think about the relationships mentioned in the passage, particularly those between neighborhood segregation, neighborhood SES, and the rate of premarital births. The answer should come from the passage, as it specifically refers to the study’s results.
The passage does not provide evidence for a positive correlation between the degree of neighborhood segregation and neighborhood SES. The results indicate that living in a highly segregated neighborhood is associated with an elevated rate of premarital births, regardless of neighborhood SES.
Correlation measures the relationship between two variables, with a range of -1 to 1. A correlation of 0 indicates no relationship, while a positive correlation (between 0 and 1) indicates that both variables decrease or increase together, and a negative correlation (between -1 and 0) indicates that when one variable increases the other decreases, and vice versa.
The passage states that “living in a highly segregated neighborhood was associated with an elevated rate of premarital births, regardless of neighborhood SES.” This indicates a relationship between the degree of neighborhood segregation and the rate of premarital births, with more segregated neighborhoods having a higher rate of premarital births.
Therefore, we can conclude that there is a positive correlation between the degree of neighborhood segregation and the rate of premarital births.
The passage states that “living in a highly segregated neighborhood was associated with an elevated rate of premarital births, regardless of neighborhood SES.” This indicates a relationship between the degree of neighborhood segregation and the rate of premarital births, with more segregated neighborhoods having a higher rate of premarital births.
Therefore, we can conclude that there is a positive correlation between the degree of neighborhood segregation and the rate of premarital births.
The passage does not provide evidence for a negative correlation between neighborhood SES and neighborhood poverty level. Instead, it focuses on the associations between neighborhood segregation, neighborhood SES, and rates of premarital births among African American adolescents.
The passage does not provide evidence for a negative correlation between neighborhood poverty level and the rate of premarital births. Rather, it shows that living in low-SES households and highly segregated neighborhoods is associated with higher rates of premarital first births before age 20.
This question asks which of the four theoretical perspectives from the passage is most likely to be studied by researchers working on suburbanization. This prompts us to think about the characteristics of each perspective and how they relate to the process of suburbanization.
Suburbanization refers to the movement of people from urban areas to residential areas on the outskirts of cities. This process is driven by factors such as affordable housing, better schools, and more space compared to urban areas.
Structural explanation 1 posits that the shift of industrial production away from urban centers led to an outmigration of middle-class African American families and a subsequent concentration of poverty in some African American neighborhoods. This explanation is closely related to suburbanization, as both involve the movement of families away from urban centers. Structural explanation 2 focuses on residential segregation in urban areas, with the potentiator and protective models being part of the ecological perspective, which deals with how a neighborhood’s impact on childbearing is mediated by characteristics and changes in families.
Therefore, we can conclude that suburbanization is most likely to be studied by researchers working with structural explanation 1.
Structural explanation 1 posits that the shift of industrial production away from urban centers led to an outmigration of middle-class African American families and a subsequent concentration of poverty in some African American neighborhoods. This explanation is closely related to suburbanization, as both involve the movement of families away from urban centers. Structural explanation 2 focuses on residential segregation in urban areas, with the potentiator and protective models being part of the ecological perspective, which deals with how a neighborhood’s impact on childbearing is mediated by characteristics and changes in families.
Therefore, we can conclude that suburbanization is most likely to be studied by researchers working with structural explanation 1.
Structural explanation 2 focuses on residential segregation in urban areas and its effects on neighborhood decline, which is less direct than structural explanation 1.
The potentiator model within the ecological perspective refers to the correspondence between risks from the environment and those from the family. This model does not specifically focus on suburbanization or the population shift from urban to suburban areas.
The protective model within the ecological perspective describes how more affluent families tend to protect their adolescents from environmental risks. This model does not specifically focus on suburbanization or the population shift from urban to suburban areas.
This question asks which combination of theories from the passage shares assumptions with the life course approach. This prompts us to think about the main ideas of each theory and how they relate to the life course approach, which emphasizes the impact of historical, social, and personal contexts on individual development over time. The answer should come from our understanding of the theories mentioned in the passage and our knowledge of the life course approach.
Structural explanation 1 and structural explanation 2 focus on broader social and economic factors that contribute to neighborhood poverty and decline, respectively. While the life course approach also considers the influence of social context on individual development, it emphasizes the interaction between individuals and their environment, which is more closely aligned with the potentiator and protective models.
Although the potentiator model (part of the ecological perspective) shares similarities with the life course approach by considering the interplay of environmental and family factors, structural explanation 1 focuses on the broader societal factors (shifts in industrial production) that affect adolescent childbearing. This combination does not fully capture the assumptions of the life course approach, which emphasizes individual and family-level factors in shaping life outcomes.
This option combines structural explanation 2, which addresses broader societal factors (residential segregation), with the protective model, which is part of the ecological perspective and considers how more affluent families protect their adolescents from environmental risks. While the protective model shares similarities with the life course approach, structural explanation 2 doesn’t address the individual and family-level factors emphasized by the life course approach. This combination of theories, therefore, does not fully capture the assumptions of the life course approach, which focuses on the interplay of social and personal contexts in shaping life outcomes over time.
The life course approach is a perspective that emphasizes the lifelong nature of human development and the complex interplay of biological, psychological, social, and cultural factors. It recognizes that experiences at one stage of life can have an impact on later stages and highlights the active role individuals play in shaping their development.
Structural explanations 1 and 2 focus on the broader societal factors that affect adolescent childbearing, such as shifts in industrial production and residential segregation. The potentiator and protective models are part of the ecological perspective, which suggests that a neighborhood’s impact on childbearing is mediated by characteristics and changes in families. The potentiator model highlights correspondence between risks from the environment and those from the family, while the protective model describes how more affluent families tend to protect their adolescents from risks in the environment. The life course approach shares similarities with the ecological perspective, as both emphasize the importance of individual and family-level factors in shaping life outcomes.
Therefore, we can conclude that the potentiator model and protective model are the combinations of theories most likely to share assumptions with the life course approach.
Structural explanations 1 and 2 focus on the broader societal factors that affect adolescent childbearing, such as shifts in industrial production and residential segregation. The potentiator and protective models are part of the ecological perspective, which suggests that a neighborhood’s impact on childbearing is mediated by characteristics and changes in families. The potentiator model highlights correspondence between risks from the environment and those from the family, while the protective model describes how more affluent families tend to protect their adolescents from risks in the environment. The life course approach shares similarities with the ecological perspective, as both emphasize the importance of individual and family-level factors in shaping life outcomes.
Therefore, we can conclude that the potentiator model and protective model are the combinations of theories most likely to share assumptions with the life course approach.
This question asks which sociological theory is most similar to the ecological perspective, based on the assertion that the local environment influences adolescents’ norms and values. This prompts us to draw upon our knowledge of sociological theories and the ecological perspective discussed in the passage.
Social strain theory focuses on how societal pressures may lead individuals to engage in deviant behavior, which is not directly related to the assertion that the local environment influences adolescents’ norms and values.
Disengagement theory focuses on the process of aging and the disengagement of older adults from social roles, which is not directly related to the assertion that the local environment influences adolescents’ norms and values.
The ecological perspective posits that a neighborhood’s impact on childbearing is mediated by characteristics and changes in families. Among the sociological theories mentioned, the differential association theory is the most similar to the ecological perspective. Differential association theory suggests that people learn deviant behavior through interactions with others, and that the local environment can influence adolescents’ norms and values.
Therefore, we can conclude that the ecological perspective is most similar to the differential association theory.
Therefore, we can conclude that the ecological perspective is most similar to the differential association theory.
Labeling theory focuses on how the application of labels, such as “deviant” or “criminal,” may influence an individual’s self-concept and behavior, which is not directly related to the assertion that the local environment influences adolescents’ norms and values.
This question asks which concept would be least applicable to a follow-up study examining how high-SES African American adolescents adapt to predominantly white neighborhoods. This prompts us to consider the relevance of each concept mentioned in the answer choices to the follow-up study.
Front stage self refers to the concept from the dramaturgical approach, which views social interactions as a performance where people present themselves in ways that align with societal expectations. The front stage self refers to the public persona individuals adopt during social interactions. In the context of the follow-up study, African American adolescents adapting to predominantly white neighborhoods might be required to navigate different social expectations, making the concept of front stage self relevant.
Intersectionality is the study of how different social identities, such as race, class, and gender, interact and intersect to create unique experiences of privilege or oppression. This concept could be relevant in examining how high-SES African American adolescents adapt to predominantly white neighborhoods, as it would help explore the complex interplay of race and class in this context.
Social role conflict occurs when an individual faces conflicting expectations or demands associated with their different social roles, leading to tension and stress. In the context of the follow-up study, high-SES African American adolescents might experience conflicting expectations related to their race and background while adapting to predominantly white neighborhoods, making this concept relevant.
Demographic transition refers to the shift from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates as a country develops economically and socially. This concept is not directly relevant to the adaptation of high-SES African American adolescents in predominantly white neighborhoods. The macro-level scale of the demographic transition concept would not be useful for the study as it focuses on broader population trends rather than individual experiences. Therefore, we can conclude that demographic transition is the concept least applicable to the proposed follow-up study.
This question asks about the characterization of the participants in Study 1, who tend to ignore information suggesting that negative events are more likely than they think. We should consider the given answer options and relate them to the study’s findings and the concept of biases.
This option is incorrect because the participants in Study 1 ignored information that suggested negative events were more likely, rather than conforming to it. Furthermore, the passage did not mention the credibility of the sources, so we can eliminate this answer option.
In Study 1, participants were more likely to update their beliefs when the new information suggested that negative events were less likely than expected. This indicates a bias in how they process and incorporate new information that challenges their beliefs about negative events.
Cognitive dissonance is the mental discomfort that arises when individuals hold conflicting beliefs, attitudes, or values. This discomfort motivates them to reduce inconsistency by changing their beliefs, attitudes, or behaviors.
Option B (discounting information that causes cognitive dissonance) is correct because it best describes the participants’ tendency to ignore or discount information that contradicts their initial beliefs about the likelihood of negative events.
Group polarization refers to the phenomenon where group members’ opinions become more extreme after a group discussion. This concept does not apply to Study 1, which focused on individual belief updating.
The representativeness heuristic is a cognitive bias that refers to the tendency to judge the probability of an event or object based on how well it resembles a prototype or stereotype while ignoring other relevant information, such as the base rate or prior probability. This option does not describe the bias observed in Study 1.
This question asks about the most likely outcome of Study 2 based on the findings from Study 1. We need to consider how the biases observed in Study 1 could influence the likelihood of source monitoring errors in Study 2.
Participants in Study 1 were more likely to update their beliefs when new information suggested negative events were less likely, not more likely. In Study 2, Group A participants were presented with information that was more negative than the original video; therefore, based on the Study 1 results, they are unlikely to update their memory using this information.
In Study 1, participants were more likely to update their beliefs when new information suggested that negative events were less likely than expected. In Study 2, Group A received a written summary with errors that made the car accident appear more serious, while Group B received a summary with errors that made it appear less serious.
Source monitoring errors are a type of memory error in which individuals incorrectly attribute a memory or thought to the wrong source. In other words, they may remember something but forget where they heard it, leading to confusion about the origin of the memory.
Option B (source monitoring errors are more likely to be made by Group B) is correct because, based on the findings from Study 1, participants are more likely to accept information that suggests negative events are less likely than they think. Therefore, Group B, which received a summary that made the car accident seem less serious, would be more prone to source monitoring errors as they may confuse the car accident’s video with the written summary.
Study 1 suggests that individuals in Group B of Study 2 may be at increased risk of making source monitoring errors, as the study found that participants updated their beliefs when new information was less negative than anticipated. Therefore, it is possible that Group B participants may have difficulty distinguishing between the sources of information that are less negative than expected, leading to potential source monitoring errors.
The results of Study 1 indicate a tendency to accept information that suggests negative events are less likely, which could affect Group B of Study 2 more than Group A. Furthermore, given the pattern of results observed in Study 1, it is unlikely that Group A participants in Study 2 will make source monitoring errors, as they were presented with information that was more negative than expected.
This question asks which graph best represents the most likely outcome for Study 2 based on the findings from Study 1. We need to evaluate each graph option in relation to the biases observed in Study 1 and the conditions in Study 2.
In Study 1, participants were more likely to update their beliefs when new information suggested that negative events were less likely than expected. In Study 2, Group A received a written summary with errors that made the car accident appear more serious, while Group B received a summary with errors that made it appear less serious. Based on the findings from Study 1, we can infer that participants would be more prone to creating false memories if the new information suggested that negative events were less serious (i.e., Group B).
Option A is correct because the graph shows that the average likelihood of constructing false memories is highest for Group B, the group that received a summary with errors making the car accident appear less serious. This aligns with the findings from Study 1, where participants were more likely to update their beliefs when new information suggested negative events were less likely than they expected. The control group received an accurate video summary, so we would expect that group to have the lowest average likelihood of constructing false memories, as shown in option A’s graph.
This graph implies that both Group A and Group B have the same high likelihood of constructing false memories, which contradicts the findings from Study 1, which showed that participants were more likely to construct false memories when presented with negative information that was less severe than expected. Therefore, we expect Group B to have a larger average likelihood of constructing false memories when compared to Group A.
This graph suggests that Group A has a higher likelihood of constructing false memories than Group B, which contradicts the findings from Study 1. The graph in this option is opposite to the pattern of results observed in Study 1, which showed that participants were more likely to construct false memories when presented with negative information that was less severe than expected. Therefore, we expect Group B to have a larger average likelihood of constructing false memories when compared to Group A.
This graph implies that the average likelihood of constructing false memories is equal between Group A and the control group, which is unlikely given that the control group received an accurate summary of the video, so we would expect that group to have the lowest average likelihood of constructing false memories. While Group A would be expected to have a lower average likelihood of constructing false memories than Group B, we would still expect some false memories as Group A is presented with an inaccurate video summary.
This question asks about the variable that would be most likely to predict how participants in Study 1 update their beliefs. We should consider the given answer options and relate them to the study’s findings and the concept of biases.
In Study 1, participants were more likely to update their beliefs when new information suggested that negative events were less likely than expected. This indicates a bias in how they process and incorporate new information that challenges their beliefs about negative events.
Option A is correct because an individual’s level of optimism is likely to influence how they perceive and update their beliefs about the likelihood of negative events. More optimistic people may be more inclined to accept new information that suggests negative events are less likely than they initially thought.
Self-esteem is a person’s overall sense of self-worth or personal value. While it may influence some aspects of belief updating, it is not as directly related to the bias observed in Study 1 as optimism.
Impression management refers to the process of controlling how others perceive us. This concept does not directly relate to the bias observed in Study 1, which focuses on belief updating.
Self-efficacy is a person’s belief in their ability to accomplish a task. It is not directly related to the bias observed in Study 1, which focuses on how individuals update their beliefs about negative events.
This question asks which approach to problem-solving is reflected in the strategy caregivers use for pain management. To answer this, we should consider the passage’s description of how caregivers handle pain management.
The passage does not mention caregivers using analogies or comparing situations to find a solution.
Functional fixedness is a cognitive bias that prevents people from using objects in new ways. The passage describes caregivers as flexible and adaptive in their approach to pain management; therefore, we can eliminate this answer option.
The passage states that the problem of pain management is usually solved after caregivers try multiple approaches and combinations of strategies until they find one that works for the patient. This indicates a process of testing different methods and learning from the outcomes. This process is characteristic of trial-and-error problem-solving.
Therefore, option C (trial and error) is correct because the passage describes caregivers as trying multiple approaches and combinations of strategies to manage pain, learning from their experiences, and adjusting their methods accordingly.
Heuristics refer to mental shortcuts or rules of thumb used to solve problems quickly. The passage describes caregivers as trying multiple approaches and adjusting their strategies, which is not directly applicable to heuristics.
This question asks about the role dynamic experienced by caregivers who must balance many tasks for the patient and maintain other personal responsibilities. We should relate the given answer options to the situation described in the passage.
The passage describes caregivers as responsible for the day-to-day care of a patient with advanced cancer, which often requires completing various tasks. At the same time, we are told in the question that the caregivers must manage their employment and other personal responsibilities, creating a challenging balance between different roles.
Option A (role conflict) correctly describes the role dynamic here because the caregivers face the challenge of fulfilling multiple roles (caregiver, employee, and family member) simultaneously, leading to competing demands and potential conflicts among their responsibilities.
Role adjustment refers to adapting to a new role rather than the simultaneous demands of multiple roles, as described in the passage and question.
Role strain refers to the stress experienced within a single role, while the passage and question describe the challenges of balancing multiple roles.
Role engulfment refers to a situation where one role becomes dominant and consumes a person’s identity. The passage describes caregivers as balancing multiple roles, not being consumed by one.
This question asks us to determine the statement that best explains the variation in caregiver distress by gender. We should consider the passage’s discussion of caregiver distress and the given answer options to determine which explanation is most accurate.
This option is incorrect because it focuses on the quality of care provided, not the variation in caregiver distress by gender. Gender identity theories revolve around the formation of different gender identities in society, but the statement in this option is related to gender disparities rather than the development of gender identities.
This option is incorrect because it does not explain the variation in caregiver distress by gender. The passage discusses variations in distress based on traditional gender roles, so we can conclude that this statement cannot be true.
This option is incorrect because it does not directly address the variation in caregiver distress by gender. It focuses on the likelihood of men and women responding to others’ needs, not their experience of distress in caregiving roles.
The passage states that caregiver distress resulting from attending to a family member with advanced cancer varies by gender, but it does not provide specific details on how gender influences distress. To answer the question, we need to consider the given answer options and their relevance to the passage’s content.
Option D (traditional gender roles assign more responsibility for family caregiving to women than to men) is the most plausible because it directly addresses the variation in caregiver distress by gender. Traditional gender roles often place greater caregiving responsibilities on women, which may lead to increased distress for female caregivers compared to male caregivers.
This question asks which research method is LEAST likely to be used in future research described at the end of the passage. We should consider the research topics mentioned in the passage and how each of the given methods might apply to those topics.
A survey is a research method used to gather data from a sample of individuals. Surveys could be used to collect data on caregiver experiences, needs, and support preferences, making them a suitable method for the future research described in the passage.
Ethnographic methods, which involve observing and understanding people within their natural environments, could be used to study the experiences of caregivers and the ways in which support could be improved. The passage listed demographic characteristics as a factor that could affect the caregiving role; therefore, further ethnographic research could prove useful.
The passage states that more research is needed in the area of family caregiving, such as studies that determine how support for caregivers could be improved and how providers can help caregivers manage their new roles.
Option C (experimental methods) is correct because the future research described at the end of the passage is focused on understanding and improving caregiver support and management of new roles, which is more likely to involve observational, qualitative, or survey methods than experimental methods. Experimental methods typically involve manipulating variables and controlling conditions, which may not be suitable for the research questions described. In other words, because the research questions aim to explore the experiences of caregivers and their support systems rather than testing the effect of specific interventions or manipulated variables, experimental methods are less likely to be used in this context compared to other methods, such as surveys, which can gather information on caregivers’ experiences and needs more effectively.
Comparative methods, which involve comparing different groups or conditions, could be used to identify differences in caregiver support and management strategies, making them relevant to the future research described in the passage.
From the questions and a brief scan of the answer option, we know that this question is asking us to identify a term associated with classical conditioning that is exemplified by the infant’s response to the white rabbit. Therefore, we must rely on our content knowledge regarding classical conditioning to answer this question.
After a period of time, the unconditioned stimulus may become extinct and no longer elicit a response. Spontaneous recovery describes the sudden reappearance of the conditioned response to the conditioned stimulus after extinction has occurred. We are not told that the infant’s fear response ever went through extinction, so we cannot conclude that this response is due to spontaneous recovery.
Stimulus discrimination describes the ability to distinguish between the conditioned stimulus and other similar stimuli. As the infant is unable to distinguish between the white rat and the white rabbit, this would not be an example of stimulus discrimination.
Classical conditioning is a learning process in which two stimuli are paired, eventually resulting in a response to a second stimulus (the conditioned stimulus) which was initially only associated with the first stimulus (the unconditioned stimulus). Stimulus generalization describes the phenomenon in which one cannot distinguish between the conditioned stimulus and other similar stimuli.
As the white rabbit would physically appear similar to the white rat as it is also small, furry, and white, the infant’s fear response to the white rabbit can best be explained by stimulus generalization.
A secondary reinforcer describes a stimulus that reinforces a behavior that is caused by a primary reinforcer, due to the association between the two reinforcers. As we are not told that the white rabbit was associated with the white rat, we cannot conclude that the white rabbit is acting as a secondary reinforcer.
This question prompts us to identify a response associated with partial reinforcement. This requires us to rely on our content knowledge regarding reinforcement schedules.
A reinforcement schedule in operant conditioning describes the frequency in which a behavior is rewarded, or reinforced. Reinforcement can either be partial (reinforced only sometimes) or continuous. Partial reinforcement schedules encourage behaviors to be learned more slowly with slower extinction, and continuous reinforcement schedules encourage behaviors to be learned more quickly, but with more rapid rates of extinction.
Therefore, we can conclude that a partial reinforcement schedule would lead to a response that is slower to acquire and more resistant to extinction.
Behaviors learned through partial reinforcement schedules are slower to acquire and more resistant to extinction.
Though behaviors learned through partial reinforcement schedules are more resistant to extinction, these behaviors are slower to acquire.
Though behaviors learned through partial reinforcement schedules are indeed slower to acquire, they are more resistant to extinction.
This question prompts us to identify the concept that best describes the woman’s response to her job outsourcing work in a different country. We will need to rely on our content knowledge regarding biases to answer this question.
Xenophobia describes the fear of foreign people. Though the woman is expressing negative opinions about people from Country A, we are not given information about how she felt about them before they began to be outsourced by her job. As the woman’s negative opinions arose after her job began outsourcing to Country A, this situation better exemplifies option B.
Scapegoating involves blaming another individual or group for something bad that has occurred, despite them potentially having little to do with the situation. In the question, the woman accuses all people from Country A as she feels they took her job, despite her company being the one truly responsible for the shift in work assignments.
Therefore, we can conclude that the idea of scapegoating would best describe the woman’s response.
Prejudice describes an emotional bias towards an individual or group due to their social identity. Though the woman expresses emotional opinions regarding the people from Country A, we are not given information about how she felt about them before they began to be outsourced by her job. Option B is a stronger choice because it incorporates the blame she puts on those of Country A due to a problem caused by her job.
Ethnocentrism involves evaluating another’s culture or beliefs through the lens of one’s own culture. The woman described in the question is not evaluating the culture or beliefs of those from Country A, so we cannot explain her behavior through ethnocentrism.
This question prompts us to identify a structural feature that does not characterize modern economic systems. We can best approach this question by browsing the answer options and eliminating structures relevant to today’s economic environment.
Division of labor describes the separation of work into concrete tasks that are allocated to specific individuals. Division of labor allows work to be completed more efficiently and is relevant to the modern economic systems of today.
A craft apprenticeship describes a training period for a specific craft or trade. This has historically been relevant for jobs tailored to one particular skill, such as those of carpenters and electricians. Recently, young adults have opted to pursue degrees rather than craft apprenticeships, indicating a slight decline in this structure.
Therefore, craft apprenticeships do not characterize the modern economic system.
Occupation specialization describes pursuing a specific area of work until one develops expertise in that concentration. Occupational specialization allows for a greater division of labor and is relevant to the modern economic systems of today.
Structural interdependence describes multiple fields of work relying on one another to maintain economic stability. Due to factors such as occupation specialization and division of labor, workforces often specialize in completing a specific task or producing a particular good. Therefore, multiple structures are indeed interdependent to provide society with the resources it needs.
This question prompts us to identify a hormone that most likely affects hippocampal volume. We will need to rely on the passage’s description of what influences hippocampal volume, as well as our content knowledge regarding the hormones in the answer options, to answer this question.
Melatonin is a hormone produced by the pineal gland that regulates the sleep-wake cycle. Though stress levels influence the sleep-wake cycle, melatonin is not directly elevated in response to stressful stimuli. Option B is a stronger choice as cortisol is more directly associated with stress.
The passage states that “stress-related hormones have been found to affect the hippocampus” and that “studies on humans show that people who have experienced posttraumatic stress disorder have reduced hippocampal volume.” From these statements, we can infer that increased stress-related hormones will reduce hippocampal volume.
Cortisol is a steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that is commonly referred to as the “stress hormone,” as the body produces it in response to stressful stimuli.
As cortisol levels are elevated in response to stressful stimuli, and stress-related hormones are known to reduce the hippocampus, we can conclude that elevated levels of cortisol would most likely affect hippocampal volume.
Prolactin is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland that promotes breast development and lactation following childbirth. Prolactin is not directly related to stress.
Oxytocin is a hormone produced in the hypothalamus and secreted by the pituitary gland. It primarily promotes uterine contractions during childbirth and breast contraction, allowing for lactation.
This question prompts us to identify the type of memory most relevant to the categorization aspect of the cognitive functioning assessment. We will need to rely on the passage’s description of the cognitive functioning assessment to answer this question.
Sensory memory is a very short-term memory that stores the perception of stimulation from the five senses. As the participants were tasked with categorizing a list, they would not be depending on information from their senses to complete this assessment.
Short-term memory is responsible for storing information for approximately 15 to 30 seconds. This involves iconic memory (visual information), echoic memory (auditory information), and working memory (which temporarily holds information until it can be used). As participants “[participated] in a 2-minute distraction task” prior to categorizing the fifteen items, this would require long-term memory.
Episodic memory is a type of long-term memory responsible for storing event-related memory. As the participants were not tasked with recalling past experiences, we cannot state that this task involved episodic memory.
The passage states that “to assess cognitive functioning, [participants] were presented with a list of fifteen items categorizable as animals, clothing, and furniture,” and were “asked to recall as many of the items as possible and categorize them.” Semantic memory is a type of long-term memory that is responsible for storing general information. As the participants were asked to categorize a list of items, they would be relying on their memory of general knowledge in order to complete this task.
Therefore, we can conclude that the cognitive functioning assessment involves semantic memory.
This question prompts us to identify a study that would be associated with a decrease in hippocampal volume in rats. As the passage does not discuss rat hippocampal volume, we will need to apply the passage’s information regarding hippocampal volume to this hypothetical study.
A conditioned response involves an automatic response to a conditioned stimulus (a stimulus that had not previously elicited that response). The extinction of a conditioned response would occur if an individual no longer elicited the conditioned response when presented with the conditioned stimulus. As conditioned responses do not inherently involve stressful stimuli, we would not expect them to lead to a decrease in hippocampal volume in rats.
The passage states that “stress-related hormones have been found to affect the hippocampus” and that “studies on humans show that people who have experienced posttraumatic stress disorder have reduced hippocampal volume.” From these statements, we can infer that stressful stimuli lead to a decrease in hippocampal volume.
Learned helplessness occurs when an individual repeatedly experiences adverse situations beyond their control. This leads to the individual believing they are powerless against future adversities. Avoidance learning is avoiding threatening stimuli (i.e., no longer pushing a button that historically administers shocks).
As studies focused on learned helplessness and avoidance learning both involve placing rats in situations in which they are exposed to stressful, threatening stimuli, both of these situations would be expected to decrease the hippocampal volume in rats.
Stimulants are substances that increase the activity of the central nervous system. A reinforcer is a stimulus that promotes action from the individual exposed to the stimulus. Reinforcers are generally associated with rewards as they increase the likelihood of an individual engaging in that activity again. As the behavior is being reinforced, we can infer that participants are being placed in a positive environment rather than a stressful situation. Therefore, we would not expect this study to lead to reduced hippocampal volume.
Instinctive drift refers to an animal’s tendency to rely on innate or instinctual behaviors despite previously learning an alternate response. Classical conditioning is a type of learning that results in a conditioned response after the presentation of a previously neutral stimulus. As neither instinctive drift nor classical conditioning inherently involves stressful stimuli, we would not expect this study to reduce hippocampal volume.
This question prompts us to identify the term that is exemplified by morphological changes associated with elevated stress or exercise. We will need to rely on the passage to better understand the consequences of elevated stress or exercise.
A lesion is an area of abnormal tissue often resulting from physical abrasion. The passage states that chronic stress results in neurological changes such as reduced dendritic spines and reduced neurogenesis but does not indicate the presence of abnormal tissue.
Maturation describes the expected path of development as one ages. The passage states that chronic stress results in negative neural changes, indicating that stress would not promote a typical sequence of neural development.
Neural transmission describes communication between neurons, often accomplished via neurotransmitters. The morphological changes described in the first paragraph are irrelevant to communication between neurons.
In biology, morphology refers to the study of the body’s structures, so we will need to identify a structural change that results from elevated stress or exercise. Though the passage does not state any consequences of high levels of exercise, the passage states that chronic stress is “associated with reduced dendritic spines, decreased long-term potentiation, and reduced neurogenesis in the hippocampus.” Neural plasticity describes the brain’s ability to reorganize and change its neural networks.
As chronic stress results in changes to dendrites and reduced neurogenesis (reduced neuron generation), we can infer that the morphological changes associated with elevated stress or exercise are examples of neural plasticity.
This question prompts us to identify the process that most likely accounts for the effect of the peer group on a teenager’s drug experimentation, according to paragraph 4. We will need to rely on paragraph 4 to answer this question.
The central route to persuasion uses logic and facts to persuade someone of something. The teenagers described engaging in drug experimentation do so in order to gain social acceptance, not because they were persuaded to do so with facts and logic.
The peripheral route to persuasion uses positive associations with cues (i.e., beauty, fame, and positive emotions) to persuade someone to do something. Though positive characteristics of the peer group could influence teenagers to engage in drug experimentation, option D is a stronger choice as the peer group is not actively trying to persuade others to engage in drug use.
Informational social influence is a type of social influence that leads to conformity as individuals mirror the beliefs and actions of the majority as they believe the majority holds more information. The teenagers are described as experimenting with drugs in order to gain social acceptance, not because they believe their peers know information about drug use that they personally don’t.
Normative social influenceis a type of social influence that leads to conformity as others desire to fit in with the norm. Paragraph 4 states that “novice [drug] users are typically adolescents or young adults who view drug use as a means of gaining social acceptance from a peer group.” This indicates that teenagers likely experiment with drugs in order to gain acceptance from their peers and “fit in” better.
As the desire to fit in with peers promotes drug experimentation in young adolescents, we know that normative social influence likely accounts for this phenomenon.
From the question and a quick glance at the answer options, we know this question is asking us to identify a physiological description for the recreational drug users described in paragraph 2. We will need to rely on paragraph 2 to best answer this question.
Withdrawal describes the physiological and cognitive symptoms experienced after a reduced or stopped intake of a drug. Withdrawal occurs as the body becomes accustomed to having the drug in its system and often encourages individuals to resume drug use. This is not the phenomenon described in the second paragraph, as the individual is not experiencing negative effects due to reduced drug use.
The second paragraph states that “with continued use of alcohol and some other drugs, the user requires larger and larger doses to experience the same effect.” Drug tolerance is the phenomenon in which an individual’s physiological response to a drug weakens due to its repeated use. Drug tolerance often leads to individuals consuming more of the drug in order to experience the same effects it originally provided.
As the user is described as requiring “larger and larger doses” in order to experience the same effect the drugs once had, this would be a strong example of tolerance.
Homeostasis describes the state of steady internal, physical, and chemical conditions inside a living organism. The second paragraph describes the need for increased drug doses to experience the same effects as before, and would not be indicative of a stable physiological environment.
Resilience describes the ability to recover from adverse situations. Paragraph 2 does not describe the overcoming of obstacles.
This question prompts us to identify a personality trait that is associated with scores on the antagonism scale. Though the antagonism scale is mentioned in the passage, we will need to rely on our content knowledge surrounding personality traits to answer this question.
An association or correlation between two variables can be described as being negative or positive. A negative correlationexists when two variables move in opposite directions to one another (i.e., one rises while the other falls). A positive correlation exists when two variables move in the same direction (both rise or fall together).
Antagonist behavior involves cold or antisocial traits, attention-seeking, and grandiosity. On the other hand, agreeableness involves being cooperative or willing to conform. As scores on the antagonism scale rise, we would expect scores describing agreeableness to fall, making these two variables negatively correlated.
Therefore, we can conclude that scores on the antagonism scale are most likely associated with scores on agreeableness.
Conscientiousness involves strong self-discipline, the desire to be organized, and the preference for planned activities. Conscientiousness describes a person’s desire to be organized and is not positively or negatively correlated with antagonism.
Sensation seeking behavior involves the desire for new and stimulating activities. Sensation seeking is not positively or negatively correlated with antagonism.
Openness describes how creative and open-minded an individual is. This does not positively or negatively correlate with antagonism.
This question prompts us to identify the drug category that cocaine belongs to. We will need to rely on our content knowledge surrounding drugs to best answer this question.
Sedatives are psychoactive drugs that inhibit the nervous system and often produce calming effects. Examples of well-known sedatives include alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, cannabinoids, and opioids. Cocaine is not a type of sedative as it stimulates the nervous system.
Stimulants are psychoactive drugs that stimulate the nervous system by increasing dopamine levels in the brain. Examples of well-known stimulants include amphetamines, MDMA, NDRIs, cocaine, caffeine, and nicotine.
Therefore, we can conclude that cocaine is a type of stimulant.
Hallucinogens are drugs that alter sensory input to the brain and change a person’s perception of reality. They are divided into three categories: psychedelics, dissociatives, and deliriants. Cocaine is not a type of hallucinogen.
Opioids are a type of depressant often prescribed in order to relieve pain as they lower activity in the nervous system. Cocaine heightens nervous system activity and is not a type of opioid.
This question prompts us to identify a factor that would NOT confound the results from the self-statements described in the passage. We will need to rely on our content knowledge regarding confounding variables to best answer this question.
The Hawthorne effect describes a change in participant behavior due to their awareness of being observed. Though the passage does not state whether or not participants are responding to self-statements in front of researchers or not, the awareness that their self-reports will be analyzed by researchers can influence their responses and would still be illustrative of the Hawthorne effect.
Demand characteristics are characteristics that participants believe are favored by the researcher. Demand characteristics can cause an individual to modify their behavior in order to better fit the researcher’s interests and could influence how participants respond to different self-statements.
The self-serving bias describes the tendency for individuals to attribute positive outcomes to their individual character (dispositional factors) and negative outcomes to their environment (situational factors) as a means of maintaining or enhancing self-esteem. The self-serving bias could promote participant acceptance of self-statements that show them in a positive light compared to self-statements that show them in a negative light, confounding the results obtained from the study.
The passage states that “participants responded to 20 self-statements on a four-point response scale, where higher scores indicate that the individual has the trait being assessed.” Confirmation bias describes the tendency for individuals to interpret new information in a way that supports their pre-existing beliefs. As participants are not evaluating information but rather identifying how much they feel a statement represents them, confirmation bias would not confound the results of the study as it would still accurately measure participant alignment with different personality traits.
Therefore, confirmation bias would not confound the results obtained from the self-statement portion of the study.
This question prompts us to identify a term that is best exemplified by the researcher described in the question. We will need to rely on our content knowledge surrounding study design to answer this question.
A hypothetical definition is a description of the relationship between two variables. Hypotheses are often used in experimental research to describe the relationship between a dependent and independent variable. As the researcher described in the question does not define the relationship between two variables, we cannot state that they have created a hypothetical definition.
A conceptual definition is a description of what a construct is by describing how it relates to other constructs. Though the idea of religiosity is being related to ideas such as religious meetings, rituals, and practices, the researcher is more clearly defining a way to measure the level of religiosity an individual possesses.
A thematic definition is a description of the area or theme of something. We cannot state that the researcher has created a thematic definition as the researcher is not elaborating on the area of research this study is relevant to.
An operational definition is a description of a construct that allows one to measure it. In this question, the researcher defines “religiosity” as a construct that can be measured by the frequency in which “an individual engages in religious meetings, rituals, or practices.”
Therefore, we can conclude the researcher has created an operational definition of the term “religiosity.”
This question prompts us to identify a phenomenon that is targeted by the interventions described in the question. We will need to rely on our content knowledge regarding social bias to answer this question.
Stereotype threat describes the phenomenon of being worried about conforming to stereotypes associated with an individual’s social group. As the question does not describe stereotypes associated with HIV/AIDS, we cannot come to any conclusions regarding stereotype threat.
Social segregation describes the separation of individuals based on social characteristics such as race or socioeconomic class. Though individuals with HIV/AIDS could potentially be segregated from others, the public health interventions are not described as targeting this separation.
The question states that interventions are “often conceived as efforts to counteract the negative attitudes associated with [certain medical] conditions.” Social stigma describes the negative attitudes associated with individuals in a specific group or with particular characteristics. Social stigma towards medical conditions often prevent individuals from seeking treatment as they wish to avoid the negative attitudes their condition is associated with.
Therefore, we can conclude that as these public health interventions are aimed at counteracting negative attitudes associated with certain medical conditions, they are specifically targeting social stigma.
Discrimination is biased behavior against individuals of a certain group or with certain characteristics. Discrimination differs from stigma as it must include differential actions against others. As the public health interventions are targeting negative attitudes, these interventions are better described as targeting social stigma.
This question prompts us to determine whether or not an action potential will be generated by a stimulus that lowers the membrane potential of a certain cell by 15mV. We will need to rely on our content knowledge regarding membrane potentials and the description of the cell in question to answer this problem.
A 15mV decrease in the cell’s membrane potential would not cause the membrane potential to exceed the threshold potential. Refer to Option B for a more thorough explanation.
The membrane potential describes the difference in electrical potential inside and outside of the cell. A threshold potential is the membrane potential that must be reached in order to result in an action potential (i.e., a nerve impulse). From the description of the cell, we know that the membrane potential must be raised by 10mV to increase the membrane potential from -65mV to -55mV and consequently trigger an action potential. If a stimulus lowers the membrane potential of the cell by 15mV, the new membrane potential of the cell is -80mV, moving the membrane potential further away from the threshold potential needed to trigger this neural impulse.
Therefore, we can conclude that a stimulus that lowers the membrane potential by 15mV would not result in an action potential as it moves the cell further away from the -55mV membrane potential necessary to trigger a response.
Excitatory effects occur when the membrane potential is increased. As the membrane potential is lowered, the stimulus has an inhibitory effect on the postsynaptic membrane.
The stimulus is said to reduce the membrane potential by 15 mV, resulting in a more negative difference in electrical potential. Depolarization describes a change in electrical potential that minimizes the difference in electrical potential from inside and outside the cell. The stimulus would need to raise the membrane potential to produce a depolarizing effect.